P8-A SPRB Practice Exam

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• What is the center tank capacity?
• Which of the following is NOT an EEC idle mode?
• Temp Controllers selectable range?
• What does ANP represent in navigation performance?
• Flight Management Computer System: Which phase occurs immediately before Flight Complete in the FMC flight phases?
• Which of the following is a documented Amber AUTO Fail failure mode?
• AP Aileron Trim: Is it allowed?
• Are N1 and N2 mechanically independent?
• What limits ground operations time for IDG cooling?
• What triggers the Wing Anti-Ice light?
• Can either extinguishing bottle discharge into either engine?
• After liftoff, AT state transitions: When does THR HLD move to ARM?
• Improved Climb Use Cases include which scenario?
• Which fuel types are prohibited?
• What indicates a system fault in the PSEU?
• Which statement about the ability to supply all six screens in the flight instruments system is true?
• Standby Hyd System Description: SLRT includes which components?
• What does the APU provide?
• What is the maximum allowable sink rate for a Stabilized Approach?
• What may occur if thrust is advanced beyond the derate limit?
• What enables a single IDG or APU Gen to power all five buses?
• In the AUTO engine starter position, ignition is normally OFF.
• If Engine TAI and Wing Anti-Ice are inop, what is permitted?
• Which of the following is true about the APU fire detection and protection system?
• Elevator Feel System: Which of the following does the Elevator Feel System use to reflect aero forces in the control columns?
• Flight Management System Description: Which statement best describes the components included in the FMC?
• Which flap settings are authorized for takeoff?
• When does the ENGINE CONTROL light illuminate?
• Which statement about thrust reverser use is accurate?
• Under NCC configurations, all NCCs assume which braking condition?
• Which items are included in Electrical System Components?
• Compared to the Normal configuration, which statement about total tank capacity is true?
• If LE flaps droop causing asymmetry, what correction is indicated?
• What is the total primary fuel capacity (mains plus center)?
• What is the default VRNP for the approach phase?
• Which of the following is NOT an automatic APU shutdown protection?
• Which factor may cause FMC position shift?
• In the RWBIWO steps, which wind setting is used for planning?
• What happens when EGT exceeds 725°C?
• During Flaps 1-25, what happens to TE flaps, LE flaps, and LE slats?
• Conditions to Arm RTO: select the correct initiation criteria.
• During loss of hydraulic B, placing flaps master switch to ARM results in which consequence?
• How many Px relief safety valves are installed and what is their typical setting?
• Under Pylon Icing Limits, if pylon de-icing is inoperative, which condition is prohibited?
• Optimum Altitude is defined as which of the following?
• What are the primary engine indications?
• Under CNAF fuel mins, the reserve shall not be less than endurance for 20 minutes at:
• What temperature threshold triggers use of the Natops fuel table?
• NNC can be used only on which runway condition?
• What is the primary function of the Electronic Load Control Unit (ELCU) in SPDS?
• What is the fixed derate thrust for TO1 and TO2?
• Which power source drives the OVHT and Fire Detectors?
• If LNAV is within 3 NM and not on an intercept, LNAV engages which steering behavior?
• Which item is not included with the primary engine indications?
• How many Master SPDAs feed mission loads in SPDS?
• What condition relates OBIGGS and the Right PACK water separator?
• Landing Gear Description: Which hydraulic system powers retraction, extension and NWS?
• In-flight with one IDG and the APU, which buses do they cover?
• What voltage system does the Standby (Battery) System use?
• Max Altitude is defined as the highest of which criteria?
• Pausing movement past the #1 Idle reverse position causes which indicator lights to illuminate?
• In EEC Normal Mode, how does the system determine thrust and when is full thrust available in non-derate settings?
• Fuel quantity assumptions include a cooling leg at what altitude before the descent?
• When using alternate flap duty cycle, how long after releasing the switch before moving it again?
• Oxygen Systems: At 100% oxygen, how many aircrew can descend immediately from the maximum to 10,000 feet?
• Which statement correctly describes the Forward and Aft Aux Fuel Transfer (Tx) valve arrangements?
• During IRS Present Position Entry, how many chances do you have to input the current position before a disagreement is indicated?
• Bleed Air Valve is designed to be powered and operated in what way?
• Stabilizer Trim: If AP is engaged, actuating either manual stab switch does what?
• What is the target maximum cabin altitude at flight level 410?
• What does RwyCC represent in runway condition reporting?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an EEC ground start protection?
• Two ways to calculate Go Home/Divert Fuel are bingo tables in -200 and the FMC. Which option states this correctly?
• Flap Load Relief uses which unit to sense airspeed?
• FD versus AP Commands: Which statement is true?
• Wing Anti-Ice is provided for how many inboard slats?
• During antiskid operations, when skidding is detected, which action occurs?
• Turning on Engine TAI triggers which two effects?
• In a single-pack air system operation, what happens when trim air is OFF?
• Wing-Body Overheat monitors what?
• In ECS Smoke Removal Mode, what condition activates smoke removal and opens the related valve?
• Zone Temp Controls consist of how many zones and which?
• Can Bleeds Off T/A use the TAI?
• The Dual Bleed Light indicates what?
• Which are the three types of RNP?
• Step Climb can be selected on the FMC cruise page and has which characteristics?
• Which condition may cause stall warning failure due to power supply?
• What is the maximum temperature to start Mission Equipment?
• In Auto mode, when does the Aux Fuel Transfer begin?
• Where are the surge tanks located?
• Zone Temp Controls distribution principle?
• What is the approximate capacity of each Main fuel tank?
• Is the Isolation Valve affected by the APU bleed switch?
• What does RCAM stand for in runway condition assessment?
• In takeoff headwind calculations, how is the headwind component adjusted?
• When Flight Control switch is set to STBY RUD, which of the following occurs?
• How many APU extinguishing bottles are installed?
• ATM-only limits include which conditions?
• What best describes the engine electronic control (EEC) system?
• Under Normal Flow, which configuration is described as the standard operation for both packs?
• What happens to the suction feed when main tank pressure is low?
• After completing a full extend/retract cycle (0-15-0) of alternate flap extension, how long must you wait before the next extension?
• PACK System Flow Step 3 corresponds to which component?
• When is autopilot dual engagement possible?
• During OBIGGS Ground Ops, what happens after the initial 2-minute test when Auto is selected?
• During takeoff, if the takeoff occurs before the TTI reaches zero, OBIGGS will indicate CMS OBIGGS O2 HIGH at what airspeed range during roll?
• Which panels are listed as Electrical System Control Panels?
• During an alternate flap extension, what happens when you perform a momentary press of the switch?
• What is the normally expected DC output voltage?
• In moderate-to-severe icing, exceeding how many minutes may exceed the ice shedding ability of the aircraft?
• Leading Edge (LE) devices are comprised of which components?
• Which component provides initial fuel pressure to the APU?
• In RVSM, what is the max allowable in-flight difference between altimeters?
• What does the Landing Gear Transfer Unit supply when SYS A engine hydraulic pump volume is lost?
• Which statement is NOT a factor in determining Optimum Altitude?
• Autothrottle Modes: Which mode maintains FMC speed, limited to N1?
• If inerting is not successful within 40 minutes, what action is required?
• Where are the APU cooling and exhaust holes located?
• After one hour following an RTO in the caution/melt zone, which action is specified?
• Autobrakes arming on the ground requires which condition?
• RVSM Ops/Required Equipment includes which of the following?
• At high speed (~135 knots), what happens to A/B rudder force if no standby rudder is provided?
• Which pressure differential corresponds to the 18,000 to 37,000 feet altitude range?
• The maximum lateral fuel imbalance allowed is how many pounds?
• In Ground Start Position GRD, what happens to the start valve and engine bleed valve?
• Which of the following are deployment limitations for the thrust reverser?
• Which option describes the meaning of OVHT code E1/2/3?
• FMC Navaid Selection Order: When updating position without EGIs, which nav source is the third in the order?
• Which statement about fuel type limits is correct?
• Which flap settings are authorized for non-terminal, tactical operations?
• Which component is part of the IDG fuel cooling flow?
• Which statement about the Speed Brakes Extended Light in flight is true?
• Which statement best describes VNAV takeoff limits?
• When will the Cross Bus Tie Relay open in the DC power system?
• How long after the APU Gen illuminates should bleed air be used?
• Which statement best describes OBIGGS High Flow?
• FMC Navaid Selection Order: In updating position without EGIs, what is the last option in the order?
• Which component is powered by System A?
• Left electronic controller manages which zones?
• How many DC power sources operate the Pressurization System Controllers?
• What is the typical delay after mains touchdown before initiating maximum manual braking?
• If the APU load exceeds 92%, what does OBIGGS do?
• Improved Climb Use Cases include gusty conditions to increase tail clearance, and windshear.
• What happens when the TTI reaches 0 in OBIGGS Ground Ops?
• During Px Auto Mode Operation, what happens during taxi?
• Which statement describes OBIGGS Low Flow?
• On the ground, under what conditions does the wing anti-ice valve open?
• In flight, how many PACKs and AC TX buses can the APU power?
• Which items are required to start the APU?
• During Ground Starting Sequence, Step 2 involves which action?
• Oxygen Panel: Norm will turn on the Pass Oxygen light if cabin altitude exceeds which value?
• Flight Management System: Composite position/velocity is derived from which sources?
• Which hydraulic system provides the primary power for normal brakes?
• Speed Trim System: How does it command the stab relative to speed change?
• If the auto speedbrake system is not armed, auto deployment occurs under which condition?
• NATOPS minimums for MODF require the minimum fuel to be at least:
• The Thrust Reduction Altitude is calculated as acceleration speed plus how many feet?
• In Alternate NAV Mode, how are waypoints defined and routes calculated?
• What is the altitude limit for operation of electrical and bleeds combined?
• During thrust reverser retraction, what initiates the restow process?
• Which pressure differential corresponds to a cabin altitude below 28,000 feet?
• Which primary control surfaces are moved by the flight control system?
• To prevent overservicing, when should oil be checked or added after flight?
• APU Bleed Air Valve opens under which condition?
• RVSM flight levels range from which to which?
• What is the correct continuous maximum oil temperature?
• Under which condition are mains scheduled full?
• Max Flow is achieved under which condition?
• Standby Hyd System SLRT components are included in which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT a non-gearbox engine component (TFPCCP)?
• How many transformer rectifiers and batteries are in the DC power system?
• MODF provides at least how many minutes prior to OVHT light?
• What is the stated benefit of autobrake settings 2 or 3 in most normal conditions?
• Which statement is true about Alternate Flap Extension?
• Above 32,000 ft, what must be limited for the APU generator?
• What happens after the sleeves are deployed?
• Where is the APU located on the aircraft?
• During takeoff with Alternate Mode EECs, which rule applies?
• Cost Index range is used to represent the overall flight cost of fuel. What is the valid range?
• Holding/On-Sta icing limits prohibit icing when which condition exists?
• In manual reversion, what enables powering the standby yaw damper?
• What does OVHT code E0 indicate?
• Which statement about brake exceedance is correct?
• What is the minimum fuel temperature allowed?
• Under CNAF fuel mins, if altitude is not required, the fuel should be planned as origin to destination plus:
• When terminating TOGA, what happens below 400 feet and above 400 feet?
• What is the maximum allowed icing exposure time when both nose radome and wingtip icing systems are operating in moderate icing?
• Which component provides volume of hydraulic fluid in the transfer unit description?
• Right electronic controller manages which zones?
• What are the characteristics of the AC output?
• How are the EEC control channels arranged across starts?
• What temperature requires shutdown of Mission Equipment?
• Oxygen Systems Crew Provisions: At 100% oxygen, how many aircrew can descend immediately from the maximum to 10,000 feet?
• If both attempts to input the current IRS position fail, what is the consequence?
• Pack Controller function is which?
• Electrical-only altitude limit?
• Which statement about the Outflow Valve is correct?
• Stabilizer position: What holds the stabilizer in place?
• Which of the following lists are components of the FISHO group (gearbox related)?
• Which item is a non-gearbox engine component (TFPCCP)?
• Mix manifold in PACK System Flow has which function?
• Autoslat engages LE slats toward full extension when AoA approaches stall in which range?
• During Reduced Thrust Climb, CLB2 reduces N1 by about what percent to achieve a total derate of approximately 20%?
• TOGA Engagement Criteria: When TOGA is engaged, what is the initial pitch behavior?
• In Alternate NAV Mode, ANCDU can store up to how many waypoints?
• Under which of the following conditions does the Isolation Valve close?
• CWS Description: In CWS roll mode, what happens when the roll input exceeds 60 degrees?
• If LE slats show asymmetry or skew, which indication becomes active?
• Which flap setting is not allowed for normal ops?
• In Standby PACK Ops, what do the standby pack controllers command if all zone controls and primary Pack controls fail?
• Which option describes the power source for the Spar Shutoff Valve?
• What is the primary purpose of Engine TAI (Thermal Anti-Ice)?
• What triggers a Wet Start?
• How many MAAC and MADC busses are there in total?
• OBIGGS Limits: If Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is less than 10°C, what is the guideline for using packs when the APU is providing bleed air?
• What action does FSEU take when TE flap uncommanded motion is detected?
• IRS Power behavior when no AC power is available?
• Roll Control: In the event of a jam, which control arrangement may be used?
• What is the purpose of the OBIGGS turbopump in mid/high flow?
• FMC Navigation Position: If a nav source fails and no manual selection is made, what does the FMC do?
• How many rudder control PCUs are connected to the rudder pedals?
• Probe and Sensor Heat: On standby power, which pitot is heated?
• Elevator Feel System armed conditions: When is EFS armed?
• What is the primary purpose of the Cost Index?
• What is the minimum fuel percentage required at rendezvous?
• Brakes/Autobrakes System Description: Normal brakes are powered by which system?
• PTU operates automatically when which conditions are met?
• When is the Selected Ignitor used?
• OPT is required in alternate takeoff calculations when which condition is present?
• In CWS pitch mode, when are inputs less than 6° corrected to wings level?
• How many yaw dampers exist and how are they controlled?
• What is the approximate maximum fueling rate when all tanks fill simultaneously?
• Stall Management: Which subsystems handle stall identification and control?
• In OBIGGS Standby mode, what is true about bleed air flow and the auxiliary fuel system pressurization?
• Using FWD>AFT or AFT>FWD aux fuel Tx will cause vent valves to open and the Aux tanks to lose what?
• In ATM derate settings, is the Primary N1 setting considered a limitation for VMCA and VMCG?
• In the caution/melt zone after an RTO, which action helps minimize wear on brakes?
• Flight Management System: Which databases are stored by the FMC?
• During thrust reverser deployment, what happens after the isolation valve opens?
• What is the purpose of the Isolation Valve in the bleed air system?
• Which valve is used to discharge air from the E/E bay to aid cooling on the ground or in flight with low differential pressure?
• What is the best Runway Condition Code value on the RCAM scale?
• What is the required fuel plan for mission rendezvous?
• During an IRS Quick Align, what does selecting Align after the unit has stopped accomplish?
• In Unbalanced Pack Operation, if FD trim air is lost, how do the Left Pack and Right Pack respond?
• In standby power modes, AUTO activates automatically with loss of which power sources?
• On the ground, how many primary buses can the APU power?
• Which components comprise the Auto Flight System (AFS)?
• NATOPS minimums allow 5,000 lbs for unanticipated conditions.
• Mach Trim System: What is its function and input source?
• Which condition triggers the auto display of secondary engine indications?
• VNAV Modes: Which VNAV mode uses pitch to follow the descent path while maintaining FMC altitude?
• Oxygen Panel: The Pass Oxygen system can be reset above which cabin altitude?
• Takeoff with Packs in High: Packs should not operate with engine bleeds on during takeoff, approach, or landing unless directed by what?
• Which EEC ground start protection is associated with a rapid rise in EGT (impending hot starts)?
• If speed drops below the amber band, which action is recommended?
• Which step occurs first during thrust reverser deployment?
• What is the maximum fueling pressure?
• During Ground Starting Step 2, initial fuel flow lags by approximately how many seconds?
• External AC Distribution Point is which component?
• Flight Spoilers: How many per wing and how are they hydraulically controlled?
• What is the total auxiliary fuel capacity?
• The Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) provides attitude, airspeed, altitude, ILS, and magnetic heading information for up to how many minutes on internal battery?
• Which conditions activate the thrust reverser auto-restow function?
• In Forward/Aft Aux Tank Groups, which group is composed of two extension tanks and one master tank?
• Fixed Oxygen Locations With Comms (3 + 10): How many crew members at the sleeper seat receive oxygen?
• TOGA Engagement Criteria: Which statement is true?
• Where is the Runway Condition Code (RwyCC) entered to provide pilot action recommendations?
• What does the center low fuel pressure indicator mean?
• Standby Hyd Automatic Operation is initiated by which events?
• Where are the hydraulic pumps cooled and lubricated?
• N1 comprises which components?
• How many inner spoilers are located on each wing for flight operation?
• What does the Zone Temp Light indicate?
• Under Amber AUTO Fail indication, which statement correctly describes a single failure condition?
• What is the maximum temperature for feeding tanks?
• What happens if a center tank light remains on for more than 15 seconds?
• What happens if crossfeed is used continuously?
• What characterizes EEC Hard Alternate mode?
• What is the maximum support duration provided by the ISFD internal battery?
• What is the correct shutdown sequence for the APU?
• In the engine fuel system flow, which item identifies the Hydromechanical Unit (HMU) used for EEC fuel metering?
• In OFF mode, what happens to AC standby and DC standby?
• Which of the following is NOT a requirement for applying Improved Climb Limits?
• According to PIREPS braking action, what is the minimum braking action required to initiate takeoff?
• When the flight force monitor detects a mismatch between A and B hydraulic input to the rudder, which action occurs?
• Oxygen Panel: What do the letters P and C indicate on the panel?
• How is IDG return flow prevented from over-pressurizing when mains are full?
• Elevator Feel System action: What does EFS do to elevator pull force and what sensor input triggers it?
• Which of the following is NOT a braking action category used in reports?
• Which action is NOT an autopilot disengagement means?
• Which of the following is described as the behavior of the Off Schedule Descent Light?
• Which condition is listed as an autopilot disengagement cause?
• Which condition prevents movement of the reverse levers?
• What is a risk of using Wing Anti-Ice above FL350?
• CMD vs TOGA: When TOGA is replaced by engaging CMD, what does the FMA show?
• Feel Diff Px Light indicates faults including which conditions?
• What does OBIGGS NEA supply to ensure safe operation of the fuel system?
• During normal operation, when does the REVERSER light extinguish?
• Which statement describes the Assumed Temperature Method for engine derating?
• During flight, when should Engine TAI be on in icing conditions?
• Landing Gear Cycle: What happens if frangible fittings are triggered by tire damage?
• Pitch Control: How are the elevator PCU connected to the control columns and what provides power?
• Where is the IDG cooling return line routed to?
• Bleed Air Trip Off Light indicates bleed air reaching which limit?
• If TE flap asymmetry is detected, what immediate action is taken?
• Which FMC Approach Mode Changes statement is true?
• LE flap uncommanded motion is detected when which condition occurs?
• In IRS ATT Mode, what happens when alignment is lost?
• If LNAV is outside 3 NM and the intercept angle is greater than 8 degrees but less than 90 degrees, what will LNAV do?
• Which component is powered by System B?
• Which is an icing cue on the aircraft?
• In AUTO mode, which set of buses are powered via the main battery?
• During ground load shedding, Phase 1 occurs when IDG output exceeds what percent for how long?
• What is the default RNP time-to-alert for En Route?
• Within how many nautical miles of the active route leg does LNAV engage?
• In Normal operation (NORM), how many detection loops must sense a fire or overheat condition before the system indicates an alarm?
• During APU electrical/bleed shedding, if EGT is exceeded and starts are in progress, which is shed first?
• When is the PSEU disabled?
• NWS Degrees of Travel: What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle powered by SYS A?
• Stall Management: What does SMYD do to yaw damper movement during high AoA?
• During Max Motoring, which statement correctly describes the required N2 increase and minimum N2?
• What method does EMEDS use to remove ice?
• Fixed Oxygen Locations Without Comms (10): How many outlets are at the six pack (ditching seats)?
• Optimum Altitude increases as weight or cost changes in which direction?
• FMC Flight Phases: Which phase covers From ToC to ToD, including step climbs and descents?
• Manual extension of landing gear is possible using gravity free fall with how many handles in the Flight Deck?
• Which statements describe EEC Soft Alternate mode?
• APU Bleed Valve actuation description?
• Two engines are described as identical except for one difference. What is that difference?
• In PACK System Flow, the first step is which component?
• Flight Management Computer System: Which FMC is generally the primary and can be toggled by a selector switch?
• If the aircraft is on deck with engines off, when will the APU bottle automatically discharge after fire indications?
• When braking with antiskid inoperative, what is the recommended initial action?
• What is the maximum speedbrake G extension?
• Rudder pedal input travel is limited to which angle?
• Which criterion specifically relates to maintaining stabilized airspeed during approach?
• Immediately after mains touchdown when performing manual braking, what is recommended?
• What are the autopilot engagement criteria?
• In most normal conditions, which autobrake setting is considered optimal?
• In the Steps to Increase Takeoff Weight (RWBIWO), what is the first step?
• Single Pack Can Power is possible when?
• N2 comprises which components?
• FMC Navigation Position: Which primary sources does the FMC use to determine position?
• What pumps exist on each hydraulic side?
• What is IDG cooling described as?
• Takeoff FMAs: After liftoff, roll behavior below 400' RA?
• Which statement best defines a Contaminated Runway?
• Fixed Oxygen Locations with comms (3 + 10): How many crew positions are in the cockpit?
• Which statement defines icing conditions?
• How many extinguishing bottles are installed for engines and APU, respectively?
• In AFS failures, what happens if a RA failure is detected on one side?
• Which combination can power all controls with no loss of controllability?
• Which factor may restrict suction feed flow?
• What criterion indicates TE flap uncommanded motion?
• Which of the following is a listed secondary engine indication?
• OBIGGS Mid Flow is generally commanded during which phases of flight?
• During flap settings 30-40, TE flaps, LE flaps, and LE slats go to which positions?
• Which mains are integral to the wing structure?
• Takeoff FMAs: What happens at 60 knots?
• Engine Failure After Takeoff Speed: If airspeed is between V2 and V2+20, how does the aircraft respond?
• Which combination arms CLB1 with TO1 and CLB2 with TO2?
• What is the configuration of the AC-powered fuel pumps?
• What is the purpose of NEA in OBIGGS?
• During Reduced Thrust Climb, CLB1 reduces N1 by about what percent to achieve a total derate of roughly 10%?
• On a dry runway, which braking method provides the greatest deceleration?
• Which component initiates automatic electrical load shedding?
• TOGA engagement with FD off is allowed under which condition?
• During a flight start attempt, which condition indicates a windmill start?
• Braking action reports to RCAM are expressed in what range?
• In flight, what does Wing Anti-Ice do?
• Which engine model is described as a high bypass ratio axial flow turbofan designed for subsonic service, with a static sea level thrust of 27,300 pounds?
• During alternate flap extension, how are TE devices driven to a desired position?
• Where is the scavenge pump located and when does it start transferring fuel?
• What drives the crossfeed pump?
• In takeoff headwind calculations, what value is used for calm, light, or variable wind conditions?
• Interpolation is not authorized during alternate takeoff calculations under which condition?
• When multiple NCC configurations exist, which should be selected?
• What does the BATTERY mode do in standby power modes?
• FMC Navigation Position: In auto-default navigation selection, which sequence does the FMC follow?
• Which statement is NOT an effect of reverse thrust?
• For CLB2, after N1 reduction to achieve ~20% derate, the reduced N1 is held until what altitude before returning to full at 15,000 ft?
• Where are the hydraulic reservoirs located?
• VNAV will not allow descent below restriction altitude until the aircraft reaches what speed condition?
• Which braking technique is recommended when applying maximum manual braking?
• Compared to the electric pump, the engine-driven pump is approximately how many times more powerful?
• FMC Descent Considerations: What is the default descent speed behavior?
• In Manual Mode, what powers the PX System?
• Bleeds-only altitude limit?
• Auxiliary fuel transfer limits warn that allowing the center tank to reach less than 400 lbs without initiating aux fuel Tx may result in what?